Anonymous
Anonymous asked in Arts & HumanitiesHistory · 10 months ago

Why did Bismarck want to exclude Austrian from his new united German Empire, while Hitler wanted to include Austria to his Nazi Germany?

13 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    10 months ago
    Favorite Answer

    In the late 1800's Austria was a vast empire unto itself and it was a rival of Prussia/Germany, not a friend.

    Whereas on the other hand, Hitler was born in Austria and after WW1 the Austro-Hungarian Empire had been broken up and Austria was a small and weak country. Austrians were also a Germanic people and Hitler wanted to unite all Germans into one country under his leadership.

  • 10 months ago

    Austria was already included in a major empire, namely the Austro-Hungarian empire. They were Germany's rivals at the time.

  • 10 months ago

    Bismarck needed an ally.

  • Anonymous
    10 months ago

    Your confused. Hilter didn't include "Austria" he included "land". He had murdered most Austrian.

    Bismark? He wasn't a murderer.

    Now what's the question? Oh yes. In what way did Bismark or Hitler represent Germany or Germans?

    Hilter was a Nazi which is a political party kinda like the Democrats here.

    Do you think the united States Democrats and Republicans represent the united States population?

    You don't consider either of them 'nazi' parties?

    Why not?

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  • Anonymous
    10 months ago

    At the time of German unification, Austria was a relatively powerful state. Prussia had defeated them but couldn't bully them into complete submission. Austria was also the head of a multinational empire in Central Europe and the Balkans. These facts put it outside of Prussias interest in a united Germany.

    By 1933, when Hitler came to power, Austria was reduced to basically its current borders. Hitler, who wanted to unite all German peoples in one state, saw the exclusion of Austria from intiial German unification as a great mistake. It also mattered that he himself was Austrian, so the Anschluss brought his birth country back within the country which he now ruled.

  • 10 months ago

    Because during Bismarck's era, Austria wasn't as weak as it was during Hitler's, so the idea that he could just "include" it was not practical.

  • gerald
    Lv 7
    10 months ago

    Napoleon had defeated most of Europe's armies Austria was a shadow of its former glory the Prussians helped Wellington to defeat Napoleon at Waterloo 1815 so Europe was ripe for a country like Germany to grow and the baggage of Austria was just what created Germany's failings in WW1 Hitler was Austrian and wanted to create the third Reich after the Holy Roman Empire who were the 2nd

  • 10 months ago

    Different people.

  • 10 months ago

    Prior to WWI, Austria was part of the Austro-Hungarian Empire, a multi-ethnic nation with a lot of Hungarians, Poles, Czechs and other non German minorities. There was substantial anti-Catholic sentiment in Bismarck's Germany. I'm not sure that was a factor, but it might have been.

    After the war, Austria was a rump state, almost entirely German.

  • Anonymous
    10 months ago

    Because the Austrian-Hungarian Empire would have been a dominant partner and a strong rival to Prussia.

    Hitler, on the other hand, was an Austrian.

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