Anonymous
Anonymous asked in Arts & HumanitiesHistory · 2 months ago

Were the Scots/Irish forced west to the applacians because they were viewed as lesser than the English/Dutch/Germans who had already settled?

And established, and prejudiced against by them?

Update:

@mardi- Scots /Irish are separate  to Irish and Scots, of which there are populations in Boston NYC, Ontario etc

3 Answers

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  • larry1
    Lv 6
    2 months ago

    No, the Scotch-Irish from Northern (and) Ireland were not forced or discriminated against, It's just by the time they came the best land (nearer the coast) were already settled by recent prior immigrants from the home British Isles. 

    So, when they arrived it was....'move inland up into the hills and valleys'....and tame them and make them your own more or less on your own. The English had arrived 1st and had all the best land. the Dutch had New York (but not for long), the Germans Pennsylvania. What was then 'available' for the Scotch-Irish  were western North/ South Carolina, West Virginia, Kentucky, Tennessee etc.  

  • Marli
    Lv 7
    2 months ago

    The Scots and Irish were not at all forced west to the Appalachians.  

    Boston and New York are not in Appalachia, yet they had large Irish populations that even controlled city and state governments.

    The Scots likely went west on their own.  Most fur traders were Scots. Many settlers of Ontario and the Canadian West were Scots.  Ontario has many Scots placemats, particularly in hilly country.  Nova Scotia is 'New Scotland" and has a hilly terrain.  Scotland is a hilly country, so a hilly country would likely appeal to the Scots. 

  • Anonymous
    2 months ago

    No they were not.

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