Anonymous
Anonymous asked in Arts & HumanitiesHistory · 1 month ago

Was the British decision to end slavery implemented to weaken the newly independant USA, as a main consideration?

20 Answers

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  • 1 month ago

    Jefferson abolished bring slaves into the republic in 1807, before the British action.

  • Phil
    Lv 6
    1 month ago

    Perhaps, just like the decision by the USA to end slavery in the newly independent CSA.

  • 1 month ago

    tah tah dumbass laws were passed in the north by its invasive puritan population to make slavery illegal on their inception.

    slavery has always been illegal in the granr old north america always.

    you idiot euros better get it through your heads.

    your are about as stupid as they make them.

  • 1 month ago

    I SUSPECT THAT BRITAIN'S DECISION TO END SLAVERY HAD LITTLE EFFECT ON THE UNITED STATES

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  • 1 month ago

    basically no , britian abolishing slavery only worked in britian , the americans ignored what britian was doing .

  • Anonymous
    1 month ago

    No, by 1805 all the northern states of America individually passed laws that immediately or gradually abolished slavery... that was before Britain did.

  • Anonymous
    1 month ago

    Britain never had slavery once the Romans left  about 1807 abolished slavery in the empire the USA was never considered when the decision was made

  • Marli
    Lv 7
    1 month ago

    How would the ending of slavery in Britain and her colonies in 1833 weaken the USA? 

    The USA was not a British colony in 1833.  No laws passed in Britain bound Americans in the USA. The Revolutionary War ended 50 years before, so the USA was Not  Newly Independent.  The Northern States ended slavery state-by-state by then. 

    Tbe British colonies that now are Canada had no slave trade. Upper Canada (Ontario) had made a law in 1793 prohibiting the importation of slaves and manumitting at age 25 children born in Upper Canada of slave women.  I doubt that the law affected the US then or the British act did in 1833. 

    Neither Act was meant to induce fugitives to Canada, but once there, the Mansfield precedent that anyone breathing British air was forever free was applied by Upper Canada's courts upon "slave catching" in the colony. If a slave catcher tried for a fugitive in Canada, he was tried under British Law.

  • Anonymous
    1 month ago

    no ... Britain had an abolitionist movement dating back to the early 1800s that had nothing to do w/ the US. It came to a head in 1831 f/ a slave revolt in Jamaica called the Baptiste War. Because of the loss of property and life in the 1831 rebellion, the British Parliament held two inquiries. The results of these inquiries contributed greatly to the abolition of slavery with the Slavery Abolition Act 1833.

  • John
    Lv 5
    1 month ago

    No.

    It was because of belief in the Christian God.  

    The slave trade was deemed un-Christian, and indeed the Christian English stopping slavery goes back to the 10th Century, when there was a Conference held in Chelsea (then well outside London) by a number of English Bishops, and they agreed to give manumission to all the slaves owned by the Church.  

    At the time the Colonies were not a high priority in any discussion about Slavery, which was not exclusively black.  

    The white slave trade being as large as the Black slaves from West African coast.    

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