Even if a rich man?
Even if a rich man writes a prenuptial agreement, and he made 100 billion a year, does he have an obligation to give 50 billion to his wife a year even if she did housework and cared only children and him a little?
- FoofaLv 72 months ago
It all depends on what's in the prenup, whether this money was protected by incorporation and what the local laws are on marital assets.
- .Lv 72 months ago
He has an obligation to do whatever is dictated by law, wherever it is that the divorce is being filed. Repeated posts about what a rich man should or shouldn't do are irrelevant. Divorce law varies around the world, your posts are way outlandish in what you suggest.
- fireflyfliesbyLv 72 months ago
What does the pre-nup say about it? Also, did either party violate any of the terms in said pre-nup? As I stated in my previous answer, this isn't about who deserves what. It's about what was agreed upon in the contract, whether that contract meets certain minimum legal standards, and whether that contract was/was not violated. If the contract obligates the man to pay $50b/year, it was mutually agreed to, and a judge agrees to uphold the contract because it is valid and wasn't violated, then that's what happens. It's honestly not that complicated. You're really hung up on what people deserve compared to what the law/contract states. That's not how legal decisions are made, even in divorce court.
- YYYZZ 2Lv 72 months ago
No.... Only what is written in the contract.