Could the phrase “it’s true for me” apply to the claim “coffee tastes disgusting”? Or is the claim unclear about whether a taster is needed?

Update:

Thank you, All Hat. That’s a very illuminating answer

3 Answers

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  • 1 month ago
    Favourite answer

    What is true is that the speaker claims to find the taste of coffee disgusting.  Fine.  Note that 1) we don't know from that whether the taste of coffee IS disgusting, in any objective sense of the word, nor even that 2) the speaker himself actually finds the taste disgusting.

  • John P
    Lv 7
    1 month ago

    Well, obviously. If coffee tastes disgusting to yu, there is no neee for confirmation from a professional taster.

  • Anonymous
    1 month ago

    Since the likability of the taste of coffee is an opinion rather than a provable fact, "it's true for me" is applicable.

    No taster can prove that coffee is disgusting or wonderful or anything in between.

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